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Sandeep Pratap Singh
Written By Sandeep Pratap Singh
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Top 50 Important NDA 2 GAT Previous Year Questions: The NDA GAT (General Ability Test) is one of the most important sections of the NDA written examination. It carries 600 marks and tests candidates across English, Physics, Chemistry, General Science, History, Geography and Current Affairs.


Previous-year NDA papers are particularly useful because they help candidates understand the difficulty level, recurring concepts and UPSC's question pattern. Recent NDA GAT papers from 2024 and 2025 are available for practice, including NDA 2 2025, NDA 1 2025, NDA 2 2024 and NDA 1 2024. 

For NDA 2 2026 preparation, solving these questions can help candidates revise important concepts and identify areas that require additional practice.


50 NDA GAT Previous Year Questions


English


1. Choose the word closest in meaning to "ABUNDANT".
A. Scarce
B. Plentiful
C. Limited
D. Rare

Answer: B. Plentiful


2. Choose the word opposite in meaning to "HOSTILE".
A. Aggressive
B. Unfriendly
C. Friendly
D. Violent

Answer: C. Friendly


3. Choose the correctly spelt word.
A. Accomodation
B. Accommodation
C. Acommodation
D. Accommadation

Answer: B. Accommodation


4. Choose the appropriate meaning of the idiom "at sixes and sevens".
A. In confusion
B. In agreement
C. In danger
D. In celebration

Answer: A. In confusion


5. Identify the part of the sentence containing an error: "Neither of the boys has completed his assignment."
A. Neither
B. of the boys
C. have completed
D. his assignment

Answer: C. have completed


6. Choose the word closest in meaning to "RELUCTANT".
A. Unwilling
B. Excited
C. Confident
D. Determined

Answer: A. Unwilling


7. Fill in the blank: "He has been working here _____ 2020."
A. for
B. from
C. since
D. by

Answer: C. since


8. Choose the correct passive form: "The teacher praised the student."
A. The student praised the teacher.
B. The student was praised by the teacher.
C. The student is praised by the teacher.
D. The teacher was praised by the student.

Answer: B. The student was praised by the teacher.


9. Choose the word opposite in meaning to "ANCIENT".
A. Historic
B. Primitive
C. Modern
D. Old

Answer: C. Modern


10. Select the correct meaning of the phrase "to call it a day".
A. To begin work
B. To stop working
C. To postpone a meeting
D. To work throughout the day

Answer: B. To stop working


Physics


11. Which physical quantity is measured in Newton?
A. Work
B. Power
C. Force
D. Energy

Answer: C. Force


12. Which law explains the relationship between force, mass, and acceleration?
A. Newton's First Law
B. Newton's Second Law
C. Newton's Third Law
D. Law of Gravitation

Answer: B. Newton's Second Law


13. Which type of lens is used to correct myopia?
A. Convex lens
B. Concave lens
C. Cylindrical lens
D. Plane lens

Answer: B. Concave lens


14. The SI unit of electrical resistance is:
A. Volt
B. Ampere
C. Ohm
D. Watt

Answer: C. Ohm


15. What happens to the resistance of a metallic conductor when its temperature increases?
A. It generally increases
B. It decreases
C. It becomes zero
D. It remains unchanged

Answer: A. It generally increases


16. Which phenomenon is mainly responsible for the twinkling of stars?
A. Reflection
B. Atmospheric refraction
C. Dispersion
D. Diffraction

Answer: B. Atmospheric refraction


17. Which electromagnetic radiation has the shortest wavelength among the following?
A. Radio waves
B. Microwaves
C. X-rays
D. Infrared rays

Answer: C. X-rays


18. A body continues in its state of rest or uniform motion unless acted upon by an external force. This is:
A. Newton's First Law
B. Newton's Second Law
C. Newton's Third Law
D. Kepler's Law

Answer: A. Newton's First Law


Chemistry


19. What is the pH of a neutral solution at approximately room temperature?
A. 0
B. 5
C. 7
D. 14

Answer: C. 7


20. Which gas is released when an acid reacts with a carbonate?
A. Oxygen
B. Hydrogen
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Nitrogen

Answer: C. Carbon dioxide


21. Which of the following is an alkali metal?
A. Calcium
B. Sodium
C. Aluminium
D. Magnesium

Answer: B. Sodium


22. Which gas is commonly used in the manufacture of ammonia through the Haber process along with hydrogen?
A. Oxygen
B. Nitrogen
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Chlorine

Answer: B. Nitrogen


23. Rusting of iron requires oxygen and:
A. Nitrogen
B. Carbon dioxide only
C. Moisture
D. Hydrogen

Answer: C. Moisture


24. Which element has the chemical symbol 'Na'?
A. Nitrogen
B. Sodium
C. Neon
D. Nickel

Answer: B. Sodium


25. Which substance is commonly known as baking soda?
A. Sodium carbonate
B. Sodium bicarbonate
C. Calcium carbonate
D. Potassium carbonate

Answer: B. Sodium bicarbonate


Biology and General Science


26. What is considered the basic structural and functional unit of life?
A. Tissue
B. Organ
C. Cell
D. Nucleus

Answer: C. Cell


27. Which organelle is known as the powerhouse of the cell?
A. Ribosome
B. Mitochondria
C. Golgi apparatus
D. Lysosome

Answer: B. Mitochondria


28. Which part of the human brain controls balance and coordination?
A. Cerebrum
B. Cerebellum
C. Medulla
D. Hypothalamus

Answer: B. Cerebellum


29. Which blood cells help the body fight infections?
A. Red blood cells
B. White blood cells
C. Platelets
D. Plasma cells

Answer: B. White blood cells


30. Which vitamin deficiency causes scurvy?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D

Answer: C. Vitamin C


31. Which organ filters waste products from the blood?
A. Heart
B. Kidney
C. Stomach
D. Pancreas

Answer: B. Kidney


32. Photosynthesis mainly takes place in which cell organelle?
A. Mitochondria
B. Chloroplast
C. Ribosome
D. Nucleus

Answer: B. Chloroplast


33. Which hormone helps regulate blood glucose levels?
A. Insulin
B. Thyroxine
C. Adrenaline
D. Estrogen

Answer: A. Insulin


History


34. Who founded the Mauryan Empire?
A. Ashoka
B. Chandragupta Maurya
C. Bindusara
D. Bimbisara

Answer: B. Chandragupta Maurya


35. Which ancient Indian university was located in present-day Bihar?
A. Takshashila
B. Nalanda
C. Vallabhi
D. Vikramashila

Answer: B. Nalanda


36. Who introduced the Permanent Settlement in Bengal?
A. Lord Dalhousie
B. Lord Cornwallis
C. Lord Curzon
D. Lord Wellesley

Answer: B. Lord Cornwallis


37. The Quit India Movement was launched in:
A. 1930
B. 1935
C. 1942
D. 1946

Answer: C. 1942


38. Who gave the slogan "Swaraj is my birthright, and I shall have it"?
A. Mahatma Gandhi
B. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
C. Lala Lajpat Rai
D. Subhas Chandra Bose

Answer: B. Bal Gangadhar Tilak


39. The Battle of Plassey was fought in:
A. 1757
B. 1761
C. 1764
D. 1773

Answer: A. 1757


40. Who among the following was associated with the Aligarh Movement?
A. Sir Syed Ahmad Khan
B. Raja Ram Mohan Roy
C. Swami Vivekananda
D. Dayanand Saraswati

Answer: A. Sir Syed Ahmad Khan


Geography


41. Which river is known as the "Sorrow of Bihar"?
A. Ganga
B. Kosi
C. Son
D. Gandak

Answer: B. Kosi


42. Which type of soil is particularly suitable for cotton cultivation?
A. Laterite soil
B. Black soil
C. Red soil
D. Mountain soil

Answer: B. Black soil


43. The Tropic of Cancer passes through how many Indian states?
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9

Answer: C. 8


44. Which is the largest freshwater lake in India by surface area?
A. Wular Lake
B. Dal Lake
C. Loktak Lake
D. Sambhar Lake

Answer: A. Wular Lake


45. The Western Ghats are also known as:
A. Sahyadri
B. Aravalli
C. Shivalik
D. Nilgiri

Answer: A. Sahyadri


Indian Polity and Defence


46. Which Article of the Indian Constitution guarantees equality before law?
A. Article 12
B. Article 14
C. Article 19
D. Article 21

Answer: B. Article 14


47. Fundamental Duties were added to the Indian Constitution by which Amendment?
A. 24th Amendment
B. 42nd Amendment
C. 44th Amendment
D. 73rd Amendment

Answer: B. 42nd Amendment


48. Who is the Supreme Commander of the Indian Armed Forces?
A. Prime Minister
B. Defence Minister
C. President of India
D. Chief of Defence Staff

Answer: C. President of India


49. What is the highest wartime gallantry award in India?
A. Ashoka Chakra
B. Maha Vir Chakra
C. Param Vir Chakra
D. Vir Chakra

Answer: C. Param Vir Chakra


50. The President of India is elected by:
A. Direct vote of citizens
B. Members of Lok Sabha only
C. An Electoral College
D. Members of Rajya Sabha only

Answer: C. An Electoral College


How These Questions Help in NDA 2 2026 Preparation

These 50 questions are designed around previous-year NDA GAT topics and recurring concepts rather than being presented as a prediction of the exact NDA 2 2026 paper. 


UPSC's previous-paper archive and major preparation repositories list GAT papers from NDA 2014 onwards, including the recent NDA 1 2025, NDA 2 2025, NDA 1 2024 and NDA 2 2024 papers. 


NDA GAT Preparation Strategy

For NDA 2 2026, candidates should use PYQs in three steps:

  1. First attempt: Solve the questions without looking at the answers.
  2. Second revision: Analyse every incorrect and doubtful question.
  3. Final revision: Reattempt the PYQs under a time limit.

Do not simply memorise the answers. If a question asks about a constitutional Article, historical event, scientific principle or geographical feature, revise the complete concept behind that question.


Why NDA Previous Year Questions Are Important

Previous-year papers provide a realistic understanding of the NDA examination. The available paper archives contain GAT papers from several years, while recent papers such as NDA 2 2025 and NDA 1 2025 contain the complete 150-question GAT format. 

For NDA 2 2026 aspirants, PYQs should be part of daily revision, particularly during the final phase of preparation. Candidates can also compare their performance across different years to identify their strongest and weakest GAT sections.


Conclusion

The 50 important GAT questions for NDA 2 2026 above cover the major areas that NDA aspirants should revise through previous-year practice. Focus on understanding concepts instead of memorising isolated answers.

Along with these questions, solve complete NDA GAT previous-year papers, revise current affairs, and take full-length mock tests. This combination can help improve accuracy, speed,d and confidence for the NDA 2 2026 examination.


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