Discover 50 important questions for the CDS 2026 exam here. The CDS important questions help you understand the exam pattern and recurring topics.

It covers high-weightage areas from Maths, English, and GK. Practice topic-wise Important Questions for CDS Exam 2026 here.

The CDS 1 2026 will take place on 12th April 2026. As the exam is near, the candidates should practice the important questions to assess their exam readiness. This is where these 50 important questions for CDS 2026 exam help you.

Lakhs of candidates appear in the CDS exam every year. This makes the competition level extremely high. So, it is important to build a CDS exam strategy that helps you excel.

Practising important questions improves your speed and accuracy. It allows you to identify your strengths and weaknesses. These most important questions for CDS 2026 are a powerful revision tool.

It helps you learn the missed topics as well. It covers questions from subjects like English, General Knowledge, and Elementary Mathematics.  Candidates should solve these CDS important questions to maximise their chances of success in the exam. 

We have also discussed below the tips and tricks to practice CDS important questions effectively.

50 Important Questions for CDS 2026 Exam

These 50 important questions for CDS 2026 have been taken from the CDS 1 2026 Previous Year Question Papers. It ensures that candidates practice exam-level questions. 

This can improve their time management strategies and problem-solving skills. Check below the list of CDS important questions for all the subjects:

1. Select the most appropriate option that is an improvement of the underlined word in the context of the sentence

1. The officer under suspension feltintimated by the committee members during his interrogation regarding the allegations against him.

(a) inculcated

(b) intimidated

(c) asphyxiated

(d) annulled

2. Select the most appropriate option that is an improvement of the underlined word in the context of the sentence

Amongst them all, she was the only one with the perquisite to understand the complexity of the situation.

(a) perspicacity

(b) perniciousness

(c) peremptoriness

(d) presumptuousness

3. Select the most appropriate option that is an improvement of the underlined word in the context of the sentence

The office memorandum directed personnel to minimise their consumption of office stationery by up to twenty percent.

(a) supervise

(b) surmise

(c) lower

(d) reduce

4. Select the most appropriate option that is an improvement of the underlined word in the context of the sentence

The lake atop the mountain has always been the lyre for intrepid hikers.

(a) link

(b) line

(c) life

(d) lure

5. Select the most appropriate option that is an improvement of the underlined word in the context of the sentence

The announcement of an unexpected bonus led to great tumult among the staff.

(a) merriment

(b) trepidation

(c) upheaval

(d) uproar

6. Select whichever preposition, determiner or phrasal verbs you consider the most appropriate for the blank space

There is no truth in ______claims even though they have been cleverly stated.

(a) thus

(b) there

(c) supposed

(d) these

7. Select whichever preposition, determiner or phrasal verbs you consider the most appropriate for the blank space

All human beings ought to have a moral centre to fall back _______in times of crisis.

(a) on

(b) into

(c) over

(d) along

8. Select whichever preposition, determiner or phrasal verbs you consider the most appropriate for the blank space

I shall not rest______ I have gone to the bottom of this matter and found the truth.

(a) after

(b) while

(c) for

(d) until

9. Select whichever preposition, determiner or phrasal verbs you consider the most appropriate for the blank space

The bridge was intended to allow people to cross _______ to the other side of the river and get to work.

(a) on

(b) over

(c) across

(d) down

10. Select whichever preposition, determiner or phrasal verbs you consider the most appropriate for the blank space

There are several reasons behind my choice of location ____the family visit.

(a) to

(b) in

(c) for

(d) from

11. Select the response that correctly describes the meaning of the idiom or proverb 

Listen with half an ear

(a) Not pay full attention

(b) Being impartial

(c) Being imperious

(d) Listening with ironic distaste

12. Select the response that correctly describes the meaning of the idiom or proverb 

Fight fire with fire

(a) Use the same force or strategy of one's opponent to counter them

(b) Use incendiary tactics to destroy by fire

(c) Add fuel to further escalate a fiery situation

(d) Scorch one's opponent with a barrage of firing

13. Select the response that correctly describes the meaning of the idiom or proverb 

Straight and narrow

(a) Be excessively careful

(b) Honest and morally acceptable way of being

(c) Follow the straight path defined by society

(d) To not deviate from one's goal

14. Select the response that correctly describes the meaning of the idiom or proverb 

Cast one's bread upon the waters

(a) To dilute one's intentions

(b) To do good without seeking reward

(c) To while away one's time in unfruitful activity

(d) To misdirect one's efforts in life

15. Identify the Mineral on the basis of the following characteristics relating to it :

I. It is usually a greenish crystal.

II. It is often found in basaltic rocks.

III. Magnesium, iron and silica are its major elements.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) Amphibolite

(b) Feldspar

(c) Pyroxene

(d) Olivine

16. Identify the type of climate on the basis of the following characteristics relating to it:

I. Temperature is high throughout the year.

II. Rainfall is variable with a short wet season and a longer dry season.

III. Climate of Sudan and Paraguay is an example of this climate type.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) Sub-tropical steppe climate

(b) Mid-latitude steppe

(c) Tropical monsoon climate

(d) Tropical wet and dry climate

17. What is the correct sequence of the following salts in ascending order according to their presence in the sea water?

1. Calcium Carbonate

2. Calcium Sulphate

3. Magnesium Chloride

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 3, 1, 2

(b) 1, 3, 2

(c) 1, 2, 3

(d) 2, 1, 3

18. Which one among the following is home to the endangered mountain gorillas in Africa?

(a) Mount Kenya

(b) Mount Kilimanjaro

(c) Ngorongoro Crater

(d) Virunga Mountains

19. River Danube does not flow through which one of the following capital cities in Europe?

(a) Belgrade

(b) Budapest

(c) Prague

(d) Vienna

20. Which one among the following places is situated close to the Pearl River Estuary in Asia?

(a) Bangkok

(b) Hong Kong

(c) Macau

(d) Singapore

21. Salal Power Project is situated on which one among the following rivers?

(a) Chenab

(b) Jhelum

(c) Nubra

(d) Shyok

22. Which one among the following tributaries of Indus River does not originate in the Himalayas?

(a) Gilgit

(b) Gomal

(c) Hunza

(d) Zaskar

23. As per the Annual Report 2023 - 24 of the Ministry of Mines, Government of India, which of the following are the major bauxite producing states in India?

(a) Odisha and Madhya Pradesh

(b) Odisha and Jharkhand

(c) Jharkhand and Madhya Pradesh

(d) Jharkhand and Karnataka

24. If your image appears to be erect, no matter how far you stand from a mirror, the mirror is likely to be :

(a) Plane

(b) Concave

(c) Convex

(d) Either plane or convex

25. The minimum power required to lift a mass of 50 kg up to a vertical distance of 8 m in 10 s is: (Take g = 10 m/s2)

(a) 400 W

(b) 40 W

(c) 50 W

(d) 500 W

26. A body floats in a liquid if the buoyant force is:

(a) equal to its weight.

(b) less than its weight.

(c) greater than its weight.

(d) zero

27. Which one among the following motifs does not appear on Harappan seals?

(a) Humped Bull

(b) Elephant

(c) Lion

(d) Crocodile

28. Which one among the following is the earliest text?

(a) Natyashastra of Bharata

(b) Sushruta Samhita

(c) Ashtadhyayi

(d) Manusmriti

29. Which one among the following is used in a simple microscope?

(a) Diverging lens

(b) Concave mirror

(c) Converging lens

(d) Plane mirror

30. Тhe force with which the Earth attracts an object is called :

(a) Weight of the object

(b) Mass of the object

(c) Density of the object

(d) Magnitude of the object

31. Which one of the following does not refer to the bow (and arrow) as a weapon of war in ancient India?

(a) Sharnga

(b) Kunta

(c) Kodanda

(d) Karmuka

32. In the Rig Veda Samhita, use of the terms ishukrit and isukara referred to the maker of:

(a) Arrows

(b) Swords

(c) Vajra (Thunderbolt)

(d) Maces

33. Which one of the following is listed in the Ain-i Akbari as one of the Indian sciences' prescribed by Akbar for scholars to learn at school?

(a) Ayurveda

(b) Vyakarana

(c) Ganita

(d) Jyotisha

34. Isobars of elements have same:

(a) Atomic numbers.

(b) Number of electrons.

(c) Mass numbers.

(d) Number of neutrons.

35. Which one of the following is considered as a compound?

(a) Silicon

(b) Tin

(c) Sugar solution

(d) Calcium carbonate

36. A real number M is squared to give the value N. What is the minimum value of (M +N)?

(a) -0-25

(b) -0.50

(c) 0

(d) 0.25

37. If the average of 64, 69, 72, 75, x lies between 62 and 76 (excluding 62 and 76), then what is the number of possible integer values of x?

(a) 68

(b) 69

(c 70

(d) 71

38. Let x, y, z be variables such that (x + y + z) = k, where k is a constant. If (x + z − y) x (x − z +y) is proportional to yz, then (y+z-x) is proportional to:

(a) X

(b) y

(c) yz

(d) XZ

39. The measure of an angle formed by the bisectors of the angles A and C of the triangle ABC is 130°. What is the measure of the angle B?

(a) 65°

(b) 75°

(c) 80°

(a) 2.5d

40. What is the value of x, where 0 ≤ x< 30°, satisfying tan 3x tan 6x = 1?

(a) 0°

(b) 10°

(c) 12°

(d) 15

41. What is the maximum value of the sum of the numbers 36, 33, 30, 27, 24, ...?

(a) 240

(b) 237

(c) 234

(d) 231

42. What is the least number of complete years in which a sum of money put out at 20% compound interest (compounded annually) will be more than doubled?

(a) 2

(b) 3

(c) 4

(d) 5

43. Travelling at 3/5th of his usual speed, a man is late by 20 minutes. What is the usual time if he travels with his usual speed?

(a) 25 minutes

(b) 30 minutes

(c) 32 minutes

(d) 35 minutes

44. What is AB : BC: CA equal to ?

(a) 10:6:5

(b) 5:10:6

(c) 6:5:3

(d) 3:5:6

45. A person sells article X for 34,500 and makes a profit of 15%. He sells article Y at a loss of 10%. He neither loses nor gains on the whole because of these two transactions. What is the selling price of article Y?

(a) ₹ 40,000

(b) 40,500

(c) 41,000

(d) ₹ 51,500

46. How much will ₹ 10,000 amount to in one year's time at 4% rate of interest per annum if the interest is compounded once in every three months? (take approximate value)

(a) ₹ 10,406

(b) ₹ 10,416

(c) 10,426

(d) ₹ 10,436

47. If n is a natural number, then what is the sum of all distinct remainders of 4n + 6h +9 +11 when divided by 10 for various values of n?

(a) 3

(b) 4

(c) 6

(d) 7

48. If the work done by x men in (x + 1) days is equal to the work done by (x + 5) men in (x -2) days, then what is the value of x?

(a) 5

(b)6

(c) 7

(d) 8

49. If (a + b) : (b + c) : (c +a) = 5 : 7 : 6, then what is the value of (a - b+ c) : (a +b-c)?

(a) 1:1

(b) 2:3

(c) 3:1

(d) 4:3

50. The cost price of y articles is equal to selling price of z articles. If y: z = 5 : 4, what is the profit percentage?

(a) 20%

(b) 25%

(c) 30%

(d) 40%

Why are these 50 Questions Important for CDS 2026?

Here is why these 50 questions are important for the CDS 2026 exam:

How to Solve CDS Important Questions Quickly (Time-Saving Tricks)

Here are the tips to solve the CDS important questions quickly:

Start with easy questions and save time for tough ones.

• Use the elimination method. It helps you remove wrong options quickly.
• Practice shortcuts when solving questions. 
• Master formulas and tricks, especially for Maths.
• Stick to the fundamentals of all the topics. Do not overspend time on one question.
• Solve questions with a timer regularly.
• Revise concepts daily. It helps in quick recall during the exam.
• Focus on accuracy and speed to score high marks.
• Skip lengthy or confusing questions initially.

Expert Tips by MKC to Practice CDS Important Questions Effectively

Here are the tips from the MKC experts to practice CDS important questions effectively.Practice questions daily with a proper timetable. This ensures structured preparation.

• Use MKC mock tests to understand exam conditions. This can improve speed and accuracy.
• Solve exam-relevant questions provided by MKC instead of random practice.
• MKC recommends quick revision notes to solidify basics.
• Build clarity in each subject before solving full-length sets.
• Analyse your performance after every mock. This lets you improve your mistakes on time.
• Daily practice with MKC learning resources ensures steady improvement.

Quick Links-

• CDS 2026 Complete Guide
• CDS 1 2026 Admit Card
• Download CDS 1 2026 Answer Key All Sets PDF
• CDS1 2026 Answer Key Releasing Updates 

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